Hyper-Corrections

topic posted Sun, April 10, 2005 - 6:27 PM by  Matt
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A pet peeve of mine is the "hyper-correction" in English grammar. The classic example of this is a sentence like "The waiter gave the check to Bill and I," when it, of course, should be "The waiter gave the check to Bill and me."

People are taught from childhood that "me and Mike went to the store" is wrong, and one should instead say "Mike and I went to the store." The hyper-correction comes about when people believe that the rule is to use the nominative case "I" any time you have a compound subject or predicate. This is absurd and illogical. These same people would never say "The waiter gave the check to I."

The thing that really irks me about the hyper-correction is that educated people make this mistake and they all believe that they use correct grammar, when in fact, they are just as wrong as people who miscongegate verbs, as in "he don't."
posted by:
Matt
Pennsylvania
  • Re: Hyper-Corrections

    Sun, April 10, 2005 - 6:54 PM
    It doesn't upset me as much as humor me, because the people doing the hypercorrecting are usually the same ones who'll button-hole you in a staircase to discuss how that and which should be used in sentences.

    A related phenomenon is people who make up ungrammatical plurals for Greco-Latin words, e.g., virii instead of viruses (virus has no plural in Latin), apparati instead of apparatuses / apparatus, octopi instead of octopuses / octopodes, opi instead of opera.
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Mon, April 11, 2005 - 7:04 PM
      On a related note to jheem's post, there is the dreaded statement, "I am an alumni of University X." I always want to say, "how many of you are there?"
      • Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Tue, April 12, 2005 - 1:02 PM
        hyper-correction:

        "how many of you were there"

        past tense
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          Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Tue, April 12, 2005 - 3:46 PM
          Don't get that one - what's hypercorrected in it?
          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Tue, April 12, 2005 - 5:25 PM
            well i read the replied-to post as being in the past tense so the question would have to be "how many of you were there?" not "how many of you are there?". since you aren't attending and since you attended, i would think the first question would be the correct grammatical form.
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              Re: Hyper-Corrections

              Wed, April 13, 2005 - 8:28 AM
              Think you misread it - it was "how many of you are there who are alumni" not "how many of you were there at the university". Not a hypercorrection in any case, those are just slips of the tongue.
              • Re: Hyper-Corrections

                Wed, April 13, 2005 - 10:42 AM
                Maybe some people don't know what the term "hyper-correction" means. Maybe it should be defined here.
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                  Re: Hyper-Corrections - definition

                  Wed, April 13, 2005 - 11:46 AM
                  Good point, Gayle.

                  The term is new to me. I was wondering if it was invented in this thread.
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                    Re: Hyper-Corrections - definition

                    Wed, April 13, 2005 - 12:05 PM
                    yep, guess i was wrong and misread it. here's the definition for hypercorrection:

                    www.answers.com/hypercorrection&r=67
                    ---
                    hy·per·cor·rec·tion (hī'pər-kə-rĕk'shən)
                    n.
                    A construction or pronunciation produced by mistaken analogy with standard usage out of a desire to be correct, as in the substitution of I for me in on behalf of my parents and I.
                    The production of such a construction or pronunciation.
                    • Re: Hyper-Corrections - definition

                      Thu, May 12, 2005 - 10:51 AM
                      Ok, but you have to admit watching really young kids (2-5) hyper correct is so amazing. I still sit there and say "how do you know all these rules by 3?" (well, "know" being "internalize')

                      "no mommy, not geese, gooses"
                      "Not ran, mommy, runned"

                      I have learned so much more aobut language by watching kids who are just constructing thier rules (sans exceptions), than by any study of my own. And to think that by 3, most of us know that you make past tense by adding "ed", and plural by adding "s".

                      Proves to me, little rug rats are far smarter than any of us. ;-)
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                    Re: Hyper-Corrections - definition

                    Thu, April 14, 2005 - 12:38 PM
                    It wasn't invented in this thread, it is a standard linguistics term. The example in the first post in a perfect example. It works like this:

                    "Mike and me went to the store"

                    "Don't say Mike and me! That's bad grammar!"

                    "Okay, thanks. I never want to use bad grammar! Do you want to go with Mike and !?"

                    Or hypercorrection can happen in pronunciation. As an example, there is a joke about a person visiting to California and being corrected in her pronunciation of "San Jose" and other Spanish names starting with J. She is then asked how long she will be in California, hesitates, and replies, "Till Hune or Huly."
                • Re: Hyper-Corrections

                  Wed, April 27, 2005 - 11:35 PM
                  Actually, I didn't learn about hyper-correction in any of my Linguistics classes as an undergraduate. Rather, I learned about the concept in a graduate-level English Grammar class, and I had to find out about it through my own research for a paper I did.

                  And instead of "hyper-correction" I used the word "hyper-urbanism," which referred to the common intent by hyper-correctors to appear urbane.

                  I'm quite tickled to have stumbled upon this tribe!
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Wed, April 13, 2005 - 9:54 AM
      "Virii?" "Opi?!" Whoa.

      What cracks me up about "octopi" is that I think it may be used widely enough that it's the standard now. Has anyone seen either "octopi" or "octopodes" used in a news-type context?
  • Re: Hyper-Corrections

    Mon, April 11, 2005 - 7:53 AM
    "The thing that really irks me about the hyper-correction is that educated people make this mistake and they all believe that they use correct grammar, when in fact, they are just as wrong as people who miscongegate verbs, as in "he don't." "

    If you take linguistics, you will no longer need to suffer by being irked by people making "mistakes" and being "wrong" in their grammar. What is regarded as "correct" socially is the standard or prestige dialect, but linguistics does not regard the prestige dialect of a language as being more "correct" than others.
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Mon, April 11, 2005 - 7:55 AM
      But hypercorrection =is= a phenomenon discussed in Linguistics classes, though.
      • Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Sun, April 17, 2005 - 6:34 AM
        Linguists generally don't get cranky about 'hypercorrection' OR those linguistic forms that the grammar and/or spelling nuts blather on about. Linguists tend towards 'descriptivism' rather than 'prescriptivism - "he don't" is infinitely more logical to me than "miscongegate," but that may be because we never had 'grammar bees' in elementary school....

        P.S. Back in my snotty undergrad days, I had convinced myself that there was a mint to be made by manufacturing grammatically-correct license plate frames for college alumni. Thank God I was too lazy to follow through with my spark of sub-genius - how many "alumna"- & "alumnus"-appreciating customers might I have found? And would I have found them in time to prevent financial ruin?

        P.P.S. Back in those same days, I remember a few colleagues who had mastered the "octopodes" gotcha [even w/ the correct number of syllables], but still whiff on the difference between a "masseuse" and a "masseur."
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          Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Mon, April 18, 2005 - 8:28 PM
          >...still whiff on the difference between a "masseuse" and a "masseur."

          I once asked a friend of mine in that profession to remind me which was which, and she said they strongly prefer "massage therapist". :-)
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Mon, April 11, 2005 - 7:10 PM
      I understand that certain people in the linguistics community do not regard the prestige dialect as being "correct. " However, I believe that one should be able to speak and write the standard form of one's native language, even if one speaks a nonstandard dialect as a native tongue. Diglosia, which is common in the German "Sprachraum" with Hochdeutsch and regional dialects, is what I would like to see more of in the English speaking world.
      • Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Mon, April 11, 2005 - 8:57 PM
        Well, that is a position that one can take. Language does, after all, serve a social and sociological function. It marks social class, among other things.

        But that doesn't mean that standard dialect (standard dialect IS still a dialect) of a language is intrinsically superior or more correct than any other dialect. It just means that it can be socially useful to know it. Also, standard dialects tend to have larger bodies of literature than nonstandard dialects.

        If by "certain people in the linguistics community" you mean that this would be a minority position, you would be incorrect In fact, it would be difficult to find anyone in the linguistics community who is a prescriptivist grammarian. You would have an even harder time finding someone in the linguistics community who would regard a standard or prestige dialect as being more "correct" merely because it happens to be the standard or prestige dialect.
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          Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Wed, April 13, 2005 - 12:06 PM
          Gayle said:
          > In fact, it would be difficult to find anyone in
          > the linguistics community who is a prescriptivist
          > grammarian. You would have an even harder time
          > finding someone in the linguistics community who
          > would regard a standard or prestige dialect as being
          > more "correct" merely because it happens to be the
          > standard or prestige dialect.

          This is an interesting point. I have noticed that people who study linguistics do have a very strong sense of equality of languages. They make absolutely no judgements. They seem to be completely unaffected by and utterly impervious to the kinds of things that annoy others, especially those you might want call "prescriptivists".

          In fact this thread is an example of the reverse: complaining about people who complain!

          Is this trait an inevitable result of studying linguistics, or is it perhaps something that actually causes people to want to study linguistics in the first place?
          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Fri, April 15, 2005 - 12:22 AM
            <Is this trait an inevitable result of studying linguistics, or is it perhaps something that actually causes people to want to study linguistics in the first place? >

            Interesting question.

            Obviously, linguists are likely to be people who started as natural observers of language, and it's certainly something you could hit on independently. So for instance, maybe you notice that almost everyone you hear speaking English around you uses turns of phrase which are supposed to be "ungrammatical" according to your English class. Or maybe you just notice the contradiction involved when some people think the dictionary is the ultimate authority on what is "real" English, yet protest when the dictionary accepts some word they don't approve of.

            It's entirely likely, though, that someone could enter linguistics largely a perscriptivist, with their pull coming from elsewhere (e.g. a general interest in languages or language universals, or artificial intelligence). People in the field of linguistics hold on to some perscriptivism, to the degree that papers have to be written in a standard academic dialect. However, if you wanted to remain a hardcore perscriptivist, you'd be out of linguistics pretty quickly, or your brain would explode.
            • Re: Hyper-Corrections

              Fri, April 15, 2005 - 9:14 AM
              My long post under Telly's next post was intended in part to address this question as well.

              Linguistics as a science addresses how language actually works, not how it "should" work. Regardless of someone's attitudes when they enter the field, if they study linguistics at a university, the very first thing they will learn in introductory linguistics 101 is the difference between prescriptive and descriptive grammar, and the fact that the science of linguistics studies the latter.

              So "is this trait an inevitable result of studying linguistics" -- well, the first thing you learn in introductory linguistics is that this is a science studying language descriptively. If you don't like that, you can be an English major instead.

              A linguist may remain a prescriptivist at heart, but it is sort of irrelevant to linguistics, just like being a stamp collector or a Unitarian.

              "People in the field of linguistics hold on to some perscriptivism, to the degree that papers have to be written in a standard academic dialect."

              But that doesn't mean that they are prescriptivists, only that they use the dialect appropriate to the situation, the dialect shared by academics.

              The statement above is like saying, "People in the field of linguistics hold on to some belief that English is superior to other languages, to the degree that papers (at an English-speaking university) have to be written in English." But that is because English -- and academic English at that -- is appropriate to the situation, not because of a belief that English is intrinsically superior. Academic dialect is appropriate to academic settings, and an academic person needs to have a command of this dialect, but linguistics does not consider academic dialect to be intrinsically superior to other dialects.

              I must admit, when I was taking a class in African-American Vernacular English, or AAVE, as it is called in the linguistics community, it was a little startling to have the formal, academic, linguistic-technical language of the text interrupted by the actual example sentences being analyzed, things like "The motherfucker done been lookin," etc.

              One of the other things studied in linguistics is register. To quote Wikipedia, "A register, in the context of linguistics, is a subset of a language used for a particular purpose or in a particular social setting. For example, the average English speaker will likely adhere more closely to prescribed grammar, pronounce gerunds and present participles with a /N/ sound, and refrain from using the word "ain't" when speaking in a formal setting, but the same person could violate all of those restrictions in an informal setting; these two varieties of speech are separate registers of English." Colloquialisms, slang, and vulgarities are marks of register, in that they are appropriate in particular settings but not in others, and the same individual can adjust his or her register to the given situation.

              Linguistics just studies these things descriptively. "Ain't" is acceptable in some situations but not others. No one cares if "ain't" shows up in a pop song, but it will look out of place in an academic paper, unless you are writing ABOUT the use of "ain't" in the pop song.
              • Re: Hyper-Corrections

                Fri, April 15, 2005 - 10:53 AM
                Language is about communication, after all, and there are many levels of communication besides the semantic level. The register and dialect that you choose to use communicates something about the =purpose= of your communication and your relationship to listener/audience. Linguists of course make use of register to communicate -- that is something actually studied in linguistics -- so of course academic papers are written in academic language.

                That doesn't mean they are prescriptivists. A prescriptivist would say that "ain't" is wrong, period -- bad English. A linguist would say that "ain't" is part of the grammar of some English dialects, but not of others, and would be out of place in some contexts.
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Thu, May 12, 2005 - 10:55 AM
      If you take linguistics, you will no longer need to suffer by being irked by people making "mistakes" and being "wrong" in their grammar. What is regarded as "correct" socially is the standard or prestige dialect, but linguistics does not regard the prestige dialect of a language as being more "correct" than others.
      ---
      OH THANK YOU !!!! I get into honest to god "fights" with my husband who is a translator and is constantly telling me "that person said this or that wrong" (he means, X, a native speaker is saying thier native language wrong). There is no "wrong", I tell him. it's about "use" and "intent" and ultimately, change of language. we don't, after all, say "thee" and "thy" anymore.

      YOu have validated my existance. (just kidding. but you did make me feel better. :-)
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    Re: Hyper-Corrections

    Tue, April 12, 2005 - 10:21 AM
    It doesn't irk me, I find it amusing. It just goes to show you if try to warp people's minds by forcing them to say "Mike and I" instead of "me and Mike", they're not going to know where they're supposed to stop. It's kind of a nice slap in the face to prescriptivists, whose efforts generally end in failure anyway.

    From what I can tell, this is all because conjunctions in English are opaque to case constraints, (as far as the grammar in peoples' heads go), which is why you also get "Mike and myself" in places you wouldn't get "myself" alone. That's what I said in my dissertation anyway.

    Everything else I was going to say, Gayle's already said. :-)
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Tue, April 12, 2005 - 11:31 AM
      "It's kind of a nice slap in the face to prescriptivists"

      Yeah, that's kind of my attitude about hypercorrection, too. ;-)

      We do fine without case marking on nouns, since in English case is marked by word order, so case marking is really not much needed on pronouns either.
      • Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Wed, April 13, 2005 - 10:10 AM
        If you really want to make a perscriptivist sweat, ask them how "correctly" conjoin the first or second person singular possessive with the third person singular possessive:

        Fred and my cat?
        Fred's and my cat?
        Fred and your cat?
        Fred's and your cat?

        I haven't gotten an "authoritative" perscriptivist viewpoint on this one yet - it seems to always produce squirming. None of them seem to sound quite right, but it seems you should be able to use one or the other.

        What I HEAR most often for the last pair is "you and Fred's cat," which I suspect perscriptivists don't like, since it's too close to "me and Fred's cat," which I hear most for the first pair.

        It seems to me that you can't conjoin possessives in this way, or else it always sounds a bit bizarre. I've never heard a perscriptivist propose this, though, I suspect because it feels like you "should" be able to make such a construction.

        What are you and your associates' native speaker judgements, and does anyone know if there's a perscriptivist stance?

        Maybe I should cross post to a perscriptivist board....
        • Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Wed, April 13, 2005 - 10:40 AM
          My native speaker intuition is that it doesn't depend on what pronoun you are using, but the fact that you are joining a pronoun with a noun at all. In other words, my "nsi" says that two conjoined nouns would be treated differently from a noun conjoined with a pronoun.

          In other words, my nsi says that you could say

          Fred and Bob's cat

          but

          Fred's and my cat
          Fred's and your cat
          Fred's and her cat

          etc.

          My nsi says that this is because in "[Fred and Bob]'s cat" the possessive ending attaches to the phrase, or, alternatively, it could be interpreted as implicitly attaching to both nouns. Since possessive pronouns are not formed this way, having the pronoun in possessive form would not put the noun in possessive form.

          So we would say

          my and your cat

          not

          me and your cat

          or

          I and your cat

          if we wanted to suggest that I am the co-owner of the cat.

          The same thing with

          Fred and my cat - uh-uh, my nsi says "Fred's and my cat."
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          Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Wed, April 13, 2005 - 10:51 AM
          Totally - I always go for "me and Fred's cat" because that sounds most natural to me (yes, subject or object position).

          Here's another squirmer reported by www.languagelog.com, under the heading "The Pointless Game of Grammar Gotcha": A reader complains to the SJ Mercury News about a recent headline, "New SAT writing section aims to better reflect needed skills", about - you guessed it - the dreaded split infinitive.

          Of course, what the reader doesn't acknowledge is that this is the only logical position for this adjective, the alternatives being:

          "New SAT writing section aims to reflect better needed skills"
          "New SAT writing section aims better to reflect needed skills"
          "New SAT writing section aims to reflect needed skills better"

          The first one doesn't convey the intended meaning, and the last two sound horribly awkward. Just try to get a prescriptivist to correct that sentence!

          P.S. I'd include the history of the split infinitive rule - I recall from teaching intro that it goes back to 1769, based of course on Latin, where the infinitive is a single word that can't be split. But I'm really supposed to be working!
          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Wed, April 13, 2005 - 4:07 PM
            The split infinitive example given is an interesting case in which the REAL grammar and the PRESCRIPTIVIST grammar are in actual conflict. Following one violates the other.

            We know when real grammar, that is to say descriptive grammar, is violated, because it simply =sounds wrong= to a native speaker.

            That is how linguists do their science -- by mapping what =sounds right= and what =sounds wrong= to a native speaker, aka Native Speaker Intuition, and then attempt to figure out the system that is behind that intuition in the speaker's head.
          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Thu, April 14, 2005 - 7:02 AM
            "I'd include the history of the split infinitive rule - I recall from teaching intro that it goes back to 1769, based of course on Latin, where the infinitive is a single word that can't be split. But I'm really supposed to be working! "

            Yes, Karin, I believe it was Robert Lowth, Bishop of London and Prescriptivist Grammarian, who gave us the don't split infinitives rule. Irony of ironies, in Latin the infinitive form of the verb is a single word, and cannot be split, but in English it is a prepositional phrase to + verb. In Latin, it is common to 'split' prepositional phrases: e.g., de rerum natura 'concerning the nature of things'.
            So, this rule is wrong even by Latin standards ...
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          Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Wed, April 13, 2005 - 11:43 AM
          Hi Hen,

          > Maybe I should cross post to a perscriptivist board....

          I think "Lexical Elitists" might the tribe you are looking for.

          > I haven't gotten an "authoritative" perscriptivist viewpoint

          I think even people who like to correct or complain about other people's grammar would admit that "rules of grammar" arise from the way people use the language. However, I would say that there are "rules" that are so widely enough followed that it is possible to say that a particular sentence is wrong - it's wrong according to the generally agreed grammar (and spelling) of the day.

          The example with Fred and the cat does seem tricky, and but that is probably because there are lots of clunky bits where the evolving grammar of the language does not fit neatly together. If there were an obvious solution to the sentence, I expect the language would just gravitate towards that and "most" people would end up using the same grammatical construction.

          I don't think a "prescriptivist" would argue with that. Unless the prescriptivist claimed that there are precise Rules for everything in the language and they *must* be followed to the letter.

          My vote goes for: "the cat belonging to Fred and you"
          or "Fred's and's your's cat'ses".
          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Wed, April 13, 2005 - 3:57 PM
            "I think even people who like to correct or complain about other people's grammar would admit that "rules of grammar" arise from the way people use the language. However, I would say that there are "rules" that are so widely enough followed that it is possible to say that a particular sentence is wrong - it's wrong according to the generally agreed grammar (and spelling) of the day. "

            That is exactly right.

            By linguistic standards, the following sentence would be incorrect grammar:

            "I think for people even who to liking correct and complain others people grammar would to admit rules grammar arised of the way people use of the language."

            Linguistics studies DESCRIPTIVE grammar and makes a clear distinction between descriptive and prescriptive grammar.

            How do you know the difference?

            No one has to tell you how to use the descriptive grammar of your native language.

            The rules of English grammar are extremely complex. Since the 1950s, millions of personhours have been spent in an unsuccessful effort to get computers to simulate natural language. Yet, a computer could still not generate the preceding sentence or use English anywhere near as well as a three-year-old child.

            To get a linguistics degree, you have to get through a course in Chomskyan syntactic theory and the incredibly complex process involved in transformations like "He went to the store" to "Won't he go to the store?" and so on. It's a hard course and a lot of students end up taking it twice. Yet, if you are a native English speaker, no one ever taught you the complicated rules of, say, English question formation. If you are a native English speaker, never has anyone ever told you, "Don't say 'Will not he go to the store?'" (Even though we say "Won't he go the store?" and "won't" is supposed to be a contraction of "will not.") No one has probably ever told you, "Don't say 'Look up it'" although we say "Look up the number" and "Look at it." The rules you are using in every single sentence you make are incredibly complex. You don't have any idea what an incredible thing you are doing when you form a sentence. Linguistics is about studying that. Linguistics basically has so much respect for the amazing feat of using language that, well, we think all grammars are equally amazing.

            I took a course in African-American Vernacular English, or AAVE. Almost every non-linguist (non-black or black) seems to react as though that is a joke, or maybe PC, but AAVE is the subject of serious linguistic study, and in fact is much more complex in verb aspects than standard English, using auxiliaries like "been" and "done been." And in linguistics, the fact that this is socially considered "bad" English is studied separately -- in sociolinguistics class. Sociolinguistics is where we study the intersection of language and social class, and the social function of prestige dialects.

            I'm not "complaining about people who complain." I think that there is not a place for prescriptivism. Some prescriptive rules that do serve an actual purpose of clearer communication. Rules against dangling participles, for example. And prescriptivist rules against misusing certain words. Those are often useful, especially when a word is threatened with loss of meaning and there is no replacement word. For example, "disinterested," which is losing its meaning of "not having a vested interest" to be a redundant synonym of "uninterested." Disinterested is not a synonym of unbiased, because you can be disinterested (have no vested interest) but still be biased, maybe because a party in a dispute reminds you of someone. The distinction between disinterested and unbiased is an important distinction, and the semantic loss of "disinterested" is a loss to the language. There are countless examples like this -- "penultimate" being used to mean "ultimate," "literally" being used to mean "figuratively" (its opposite!) Prescriptivist rules about correct word usage can be important. And there are other prescriptivist rules with a positive benefit.

            But that's how I look at prescriptivist rules -- do we need this rule for the sake of communication? That is why I responded to the original point by saying, "We do without case marking on nouns (and on the pronouns you and it) so we don't need case marking on pronouns." Making mistakes in pronoun case practically never causes misunderstood communication. So, that prescriptivist rule seems to serve no purpose.

            I'm not "complaining about people who complain," because I too complain about some misuses of language. I just select my own pet peeves in a pragmatic way.
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              Re: Hyper-Corrections

              Thu, April 14, 2005 - 10:14 AM
              Thanks for your interesting explanation, Gayle. I would really like to know who prescriptivists are. Is it a kind of philosophical or political group? Is it perhaps like being an "absolutist" of some kind where 99% of linguists are "relativists"? Or is it just a label for people who are generally nitpicky and like to apply rules.
              • Re: Hyper-Corrections

                Thu, April 14, 2005 - 12:28 PM
                Prescriptivists are your English teachers. It's not really "absolutism" vs "relativism," but more complicated than that. It has to do with social class and how dialects mark social class; the speech of the ruling class becomes regarded as the standard for correctness. Linguistically speaking, "ain't" works as well grammatically as any standard form, but if you are interviewing for a white-collar job, you had better not use "ain't." Using "correct" English marks you as a member of a certain social class.

                Prescriptivism also sometimes has to do with ethnic/national/cultural identity, when it is about trying to halt the replacement of native words with foreign borrowings. In that situation, prescriptivism may be associated with nationalism. In a colonized situation, the colonizers' language may be more prestigious, while prescriptivism in the native language may be associated with ethnic pride and social movements.

                So, mostly, prescriptivism has to do with sociological factors, and sociological relations among different groups, socio-economic classes, ethnicities, etc.

                It is also sometimes about actually trying to preserve valuable features and concepts in a language.
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                  Re: Hyper-Corrections

                  Thu, April 14, 2005 - 1:49 PM
                  Would it be fair to say that people who study linguistics probably also have a keen interest in sociology?
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                    Re: Hyper-Corrections

                    Thu, April 14, 2005 - 4:15 PM
                    " Would it be fair to say that people who study linguistics probably also have a keen interest in sociology?"

                    Not necessarily. Linguistics intersects with a great many different fields and there are a lot of specializations within it. Sociolinguistics is one of the specializations, but it is not one of the hot ones. Probably the current hot specializations or subfields within linguistics are second language acquisition, first language acquisition and computational linguistics.
            • Re: Hyper-Corrections

              Sat, April 16, 2005 - 9:05 AM
              "I think that there is not a place for prescriptivism."

              I don't know how the word "not" got in this sentence in my post, when I was trying to say that I think there IS a place for prescriptivism (when it actually enhances the communicative value of the language).

              As I said in the post, I myself am prescriptivist about certain things, especially the semantic value of certain words, the loss of whose meaning would leave a semantic gap.

              But mistakes in pronoun case do not seem to affect communication at all. No one misunderstands "me and Mike went to the store" or "She went with Mike and I."

              I used to have a pet peeve about "I feel badly" (***a perfect example of hypercorrection, by the way!***) But I came to the realization that this was merely a bit of linguistic elitism.... it takes quite some bit of linguistic sophistication to understand why "I feel badly" is prescriptively wrong (unless you have nerve damage) and "I feel bad" is prescriptively correct. More important, everyone knows what someone means if they say "I feel badly." So, while I would not use "feel badly" myself, I don't waste my pet-peeve energy on it. I put my pet-peeve energy where it matters, where communication is affected.
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            Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Thu, April 14, 2005 - 10:06 AM
            > the language. However, I would say that there are "rules" that are so widely enough followed that it is possible to say that a particular sentence is wrong - i

            I was going to say:

            "rules widely enough followed..."

            and then thought it would be better as

            "rules so widely followed..."

            but I forgot to delete the "enough".

            But I guess everyone knew what I meant.
            • Re: Hyper-Corrections

              Thu, April 14, 2005 - 12:29 PM
              Ah, that happens all the time in tribe.net, since we can't edit our posts here.

              I think we all have an implicit agreement to overlook such things. :-)
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    Re: Hyper-Corrections

    Sat, April 16, 2005 - 2:14 PM
    It's called prescriptive grammar. What's most interesting, and most telling, about prescriptive grammar is that the "correct grammar" is just the dialect used by the upper-classes in a given culture. There is really nothing more "correct about saying "...Bill and I" vs. "...Bill and me" or vice versa. It's simply dialect.

    The point of language is to communicate, and if your quirks, or in most cases your common but supposedly "incorrect" usage does not impede that function then there is really nothing bad about the grammar you use.

    Truely incorrect grammar is something so idiosyncratic, or rare, that it impedes understanding. Otherwise there really is no superiour dialect, and people who are fond of prescriptive grammar simply havn't grasped that.
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Sat, April 16, 2005 - 3:15 PM
      Hi! Agree with everything you say (which reiterates points made by others) but have to nitpick with one statement:

      "Truely incorrect grammar is something so idiosyncratic, or rare, that it impedes understanding."

      Actually, the truly incorrect grammar, with the descriptive sense from the word "grammar," not uncommon to find it at all and not necessarily to must impede the understanding. Incorrect grammar to may frequently finded in speech from non-native speakers who are in the learning of a language.

      It is knowing it for the incorrect grammar because from the native speaker intuition it sound funny.
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        Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Sun, April 17, 2005 - 12:09 PM
        wait a minute, there, Gayle! I didn't understand all that you said there. Were you trying out some idiosyncratic grammar?
        • Re: Hyper-Corrections

          Sun, April 17, 2005 - 12:39 PM
          No, I demonstrating incorrect grammar. From descriptive standpoint.

          The point is, there IS such a thing as incorrect grammar in the descriptive sense. And it is not rare to find it; it is common to find incorrect grammar used by people learning a new language. You could read a post and instantly spot by a misplaced word that English is not the speaker's native language.

          How do we know when there is an error in descriptive grammar?

          When it sounds wrong to a native speaker.

          Nothing more complicated than that.

          Linguistics tries to figure out the system behind that -- WHY does it sound wrong?

          You can say, "But native speakers might disagree on this or that, one saying it sounds fine and the other saying it sounds wrong." And that is true. There are gray areas in descriptive grammar. Even among speakers of the same dialects.

          But these gray areas, like prescriptive rules, are only a tiny fraction of the grammar we use. Only a tiny fraction of 1% of the grammar we use in a language would be at issue at all.

          • Re: Hyper-Corrections

            Sun, April 17, 2005 - 2:32 PM
            I probably went too far in my demonstration of descriptively incorrect grammar. I was trying to respond to:

            "Truely incorrect grammar is something so idiosyncratic, or rare, that it impedes understanding. "

            You can to have truly incorrect grammar and it still can to be understood.

            Grammar is a system inside native speakers' heads. They may not know how it works themselves, but every speaker of every language in the world can intuitively recognize a sentence that is grammatically wrong.

            Grammatically wrong, that is, in the descriptive sense.

            Prescriptive rules happen only along the borderlines of real grammar, the area where things get fuzzy and dialects and idiolects differ. But REAL grammar is NEVER violated by native speakers (except to make a point, as I did above with "can to have," or to imitate a foreigner's incompetence, something like that).

            Most of the morphosyntactic grammar of English lies in its word order, and English syntax is incredibly complex. You can probably often quickly spot a non-native English speakers post by mistakes in word order that a native speaker would never make.

            That is what linguists study about grammar: WHY would a native speaker never put words in that order?

            Why a native speaker in that order words would put never?

            (BTW, I had to specify "morphosyntactic grammar" above because in linguistics, the word "grammar" encompasses the sound system of a language as well. The word used in linguistics to mean "grammar" in the sense that we are using it here is "morphosyntax.")
    • Re: Hyper-Corrections

      Thu, May 12, 2005 - 11:08 AM
      I have to disagree slightly.

      "truly incorrect grammer..."

      When you or I learn a second language, and are not truly in control of how we are using the language, then we are making gramatical errors - and not just of a "class level" error.

      Je moi donnes un chose. has errors that break standard grammar rules. and since they are not just "different rules", they are incorrect.

      Or, stated differently, (and this is going to sound racist, i pre-appologize), a BEV speaker saying "I been going to the store" is speaking a correct grammar. A recent immigrant from France who says "I been going to the store" is doubtfully speaking correct BEV, and more likely speaking incorrect "standard english".

      did that make sense? (message boards/IM's are a strange forum of oral/written cues. odd... i'm just getting familar with them.)
      • Re: Hyper-Corrections

        Thu, May 12, 2005 - 11:50 AM
        Yes, basically what you are saying is that different dialects have different grammars and what is correct in one may not be correct in another. Whereas, a person learning a foreign language makes genuine grammatical errors, which would not sound right to any native speakers.

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